3.30 star(s) 11 Votes

Aristos

Forum Fanatic
Dec 28, 2017
5,214
15,771
Oh ? I was sure it was Dom Juan in English -_-
Nope!
Don is a Spanish (and Italian) word that means "mister" which is used with a man's first name (Don Antonio, Don Fernando, etc.) to show respect.
The Don Juan character is Spanish, and he is called Don Juan in every language. Dom doesn't exist. The only Dom I know about is the French Dom Perignon :LUL:
 

Old Grumpy Wolf

Devoted Member
Jul 17, 2021
8,829
13,450
Nope!
Don is a Spanish (and Italian) word that means "mister" which is used with a man's first name (Don Antonio, Don Fernando, etc.) to show respect.
The Don Juan character is Spanish, and he is called Don Juan in every language. Dom doesn't exist. The only Dom I know about is the French Dom Perignon :LUL:
As doña would be the feminine term.
 

Odlanier

Member
Jun 23, 2020
403
256
How is there a 2-3rd chance of getting a black ball when only two unbiased possibilities are present?
 

Dolyla

Member
Game Developer
Feb 10, 2022
410
911
That's Ruby's Magicka :)
But you can verify if she's wrong if you want :)
 

Odlanier

Member
Jun 23, 2020
403
256
That's Ruby's Magicka :)
But you can verify if she's wrong if you want :)
Well she is wrong. After the first pick, the white ball is removed from the calculation itself leaving behind two cups - one with white ball and the other with black ball. Now the probability calculation only involves only the two cups as we know for sure(there is no need of probability for a sure event) that the third cup has white ball
 

Dolyla

Member
Game Developer
Feb 10, 2022
410
911
Well she is wrong. After the first pick, the white ball is removed from the calculation itself leaving behind two cups - one with white ball and the other with black ball. Now the probability calculation only involves only the two cups as we know for sure(there is no need of probability for a sure event) that the third cup has white ball
And you're wrong... By knowing the ball isn't under the third cup that changes everything. there were 33% from each cup. You have 33 for A / 33 for B and 33 for C / If you choose B you have 33 and still have 66 % it is on A or C.... BUT you know that it isn't in A so the 66% are all on C !

Look at movies "blackjack 21" or read the Monty hall Problem / Paradox :)

That's why she specifically ask to let a player draw the ball before... to know where the ball is not.
 

Odlanier

Member
Jun 23, 2020
403
256
And you're wrong... By knowing the ball isn't under the third cup that changes everything. there were 33% from each cup. You have 33 for A / 33 for B and 33 for C / If you choose B you have 33 and still have 66 % it is on A or C.... BUT you know that it isn't in A so the 66% are all on C !

Look at movies "blackjack 21" or read the Monty hall Problem / Paradox :)

That's why she specifically ask to let a player draw the ball before... to know where the ball is not.
Let me ask you a question. If in that instance the mc takes a cup, what is the probability that the ball under the cup is 33% black and 66% white? Such is your explanation. It doesn't hold any validity.
Probability doesn't work like that. It's a Wordplay used to confuse someone. Your explanation is like an instance in which one had to make a decision in which whether to burn something or not where we can only choose one option and not both unless it is a game where you are using a mod or are omnipotent.
When did the mc look inside cup B to know that there is a white ball under it? No he didn't. The only fact we know is that there is a white ball underneath A.

Edit - I'm not saying that it is wrong in the game(as it fictional and you are the one who decides the outcome anyway). I'm just saying that it doesn't work like that irl. Sorry if I misunderstood
 
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3.30 star(s) 11 Votes